How is it directly responsible? I genuinely have no idea.
By pumping huge amounts of money and political pressure into changing the law.
What you seem to be saying is that they deserve everything they get because they'd been ***** in the past and anti-gay. You're effectively using their history and past behaviour in the current court case to justify why they should be punished - basically we know they're homophobes, so this was a homophobic act and they deserve it? Is that what you're syaing?
No, what I'm saying is that this is part of an ongoing political battle between two sides, and one of them is wrong. There is probably a problem with the way the law has been applied in the case of cakegate, but there is also a problem with how the law has been applied to outlaw gay marriage.
If this was an industrial dispute between a Tory government who had passed a load of repressive and unconstitutional laws (after lobbying by private businesses who employed working class people in the North East) that allowed them to make people work as slaves and be lashed with whips, I would support any and all legal means to resist that. If there was simultaneously a stupid law that said if the workers are wearing Fezes the Tories have to pay them the living wage in perpetuity, I would totally support the workers exploiting that law. Until such time as the whole mess is sorted out, instead of just half of it.
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